Why does Mark have more than one ending?
My study Bible notes that the earliest manuscripts end at verse 8. Can someone explain the situation?
My study Bible notes that the earliest manuscripts end at verse 8. Can someone explain the situation?
This is how my tradition explains it, but it is not the only explanation available. There's a long history here, with the argument running from the fourth century onward.
The short answer is that scripture itself does not settle this; several readings coexist.
急いで結論を出さず、しばらく問いを抱えたままにしておく手もあります。私も同じ道を通りました。今は答えより問い自体を大事にしています。
教義的な答えより先に、まず自分の言葉で読んでみることをおすすめします。参考文献を挙げておくので、興味があれば当たってみてください。教派によって答えが大きく違う問いなので、ご自身の教会でも聞いてみてください。
正直に言えば、この問いに明快な答えを出すのは難しいと思っています。
I heard a sermon on precisely this and I'll summarize how it was framed.